Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 13:33
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Did you ever accidentally have sex with your brother/sister in India?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Are you worried that the 2024 US presidential election will result in a close race?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.